Does that mean if you are drunk or stoned and give a law officer consent to search your person, car or home ... you can later legally contest the results of the search because you were drunk or stoned? Or does this only work when asking for sex? Suppose a person catches their spouse in a drunken act of adultery ... can the later sober offender get a pass on the divorce proceedings by telling the judge, "My adultery isn't grounds for divorce because I was drunk so it doesn't count"? I admit there is a distinction between what is law and what is moral ... but these moral issues often become unfair laws when people don't think them through. Righteous morality can be an offense in and of itself.